I want to focus attention in the next two weeks on the three Old Testament passages that are sometimes claimed as evidence that homosexuality is condemned by the Bible. The word “sodomy” got its name from Genesis 19, when the men and boys of Sodom demanded the right to rape Lot’s (male) guests. The story ends with God protecting them, and then later in the chapter we learn that Sodom was intentionally destroyed “because the outcry against its people has become great before the Lord” (v. 13)
It might seem, then, that Sodom was punished for the crime of homosexuality, but that is a disastrous interpretation. First, it is important to note that the reason given in Genesis 19 is not specific (“the outcry”) – the punishment could still be for a lot of different things. It is not until Ezekiel 49 that we learn what the biggest problem in Sodom was – its economic inequality and arrogance (see Feb post).
But still, doesn’t the actual story of Lot’s guests imply that homosexuality was at fault? After all, he offered up his daughters instead (and I hope very bad things happened to Lot because of that action). But Lot actually does state specifically what the problem is with the attempted gang rape, as he sees it: “Only do nothing to these men, for they have come under my roof”. The “for” there is meant as a justification for his statement. That is, he says, “Don’t rape those men”, and then he gives the reason: “for they have come under my roof”. The expanded sentence would read: “Don’t rape these guests of mine, and the reason that you shouldn’t rape them is because they have come under my roof”.
But this seems weird – how could the value of hospitality be more important than, say, having his daughters raped? Well, I don’t know, but I think it’s fair to say that values have changed (thankfully) over the last few millennia. In any event, Lot is worried about the potential rapes because they are guests, not because they are men, and that is exactly what he says.
